Can't really see what Chomsky's on about. What difference does it make if a business imports cheap parts from abroad from an other company or it sets up another company itself and makes the cheap parts abroad itself? It's still trade, just that the market in question is structured differently.
Don't really get his point about the invisible hand either. He says it has nothing to do with neoclassical economics, but Adam Smith alludes to the invisible hand and neoclassical economics in another of his most famous statements, and the fact that he doesn't actually use the phrase 'invisible hand' is irrelevant:
Adam Smith wrote:
It is not from the benevolence of the butcher, the brewer or the baker, that we expect our dinner, but from their regard to their own interest. We address ourselves, not to their humanity but to their self-love, and never talk to them of our own necessities but of their advantages.
Of course, as Chomsky rightly points out Smith later qualifies this by pointing out that governments should intervene against the excesses of free markets, but that doesn't disqualify free marketeers from using the phrase 'invisible hand'. What Smith is essentially saying is that the invisible hand is a good slave but a bad master, whereas neoclassical economists tend to think the invisible hand is a good master and a bad slave.
His dismissal of the concept of the division if labour is also a bit bizarre. There's no doubting that the division of labour exists - otherwise Chomsky wouldn't be an academic writing books and starring in YouTube videos

- but the argument is about controlling its excesses and inequalities and to what extent this is desirable.
Chomsky seems to be dismissing concepts like the invisible hand, the division of labour and trade on the basis that they don't exist rather than that he doesn't like them. But in fact they do exist and he can argue against their excesses if he wants, but denying that they exist seems a bit nitpicking and ultimately pointless.
