Edders your example is kind of what I don't understand.
Say it's a £10 fare before Uber's VAT change.
Then Uber added the VAT on to the fare, according to the reports at the time, so the fare would become £12.
The driver's share is effectively an input for Uber, but there's no VAT on it because the driver isn't registered for VAT.
But everyone's happy, because Uber has just added the £2 onto the fare, and HMRC gets £2 in VAT, and Uber and the driver get what they did previously.
But the TaxiPoint article says Uber just pays VAT on their margin, which to me means effectively VAT on the commission or settle, which is essentially how it's done at present - the operator will charge VAT on settle, presumably.
Quote:
One of the questions raised by these rulings is, which is the appropriate VAT regime for the whole Private Hire industry? Crucially it is likely that private hire operators will qualify to apply VAT on their margin from each trip rather than on the full fare. The latter would have significant implications for the entire industry and its passengers.
Uber would claim they have been following HMRC’s own guidance (VAT Order 1987) to apply VAT on the margin of a trip. Other operators including Bolt and FreeNow have been doing the same, as stated on their invoices.
If VAT is only payable on the margin, that would assume that drivers are charging Uber input VAT, which isn't the case, presumably.
So either Uber fares didn't really go up 20%, or if they did it's Uber that's benefiting from the extra revenue rather than HMRC (and the driver has lost out because Uber extracted a lot of the 20% extra on fares by upping the commission rate substantially).
Anyway, if operators do end up paying VAT only on their margin from each trip, then I can't really see Friday's decision having the financial impact that was claimed, and fares don't need to be hiked by 20%.
Either that or I just don't understand it all
